2015年秋季中口笔试

发布时间：2016-12-05

作者：

来源于：昂立外语网站

SECTION 1: LISTENING TEST(45 minutes)

Part A: Spot Dictation

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear a passage and read the same passage with blanks in it. Fill in each of the blanks with the word or words you have heard. Write your answer in the corresponding space on your ANSWER SHEET. Remember you will hear the passage ONLY ONCE.

   Good afternoon! The topic for today’s lecture is “The ‘Click and Go’ Generation” which, of course, refers to today’s teenagers. As you can            (1), we used to have just one telephone and one TV in the living room, and there was no such thing as             (2). Nowadays, all those items can be found in most teenagers’ bedrooms. Teens can have
            (3) behind closed doors, and they can turn the TV on to            (4). If they are curious, they will use the Internet to explore places they never imagined existed, get
            (5), and talk to people far away. Having this equipment in their own rooms means
            (6) for the kids.

As a result, many parents complain that teenagers are becoming too individualistic and
            (7) from the family. On the other hand, teenagers think that parents should
            (8) their privacy. Psychologists say that if the teens            (9),parents should just keep on knocking. Parents have             (10) who their sons   and daughters are with and what they are doing. But parents must be             (11),too. Some parents are very strict and try to             (12) their kids. But in the end,that doesn’t work, because it makes teens             (13). The more unhappy teenagers are, the more they want to be
            (14). Some may even turn to the Internet and give up all
            (15) with family members and live in cyberspace.

Today's teenagers may be “ (16),” but they are also the most educated, and the most globally aware, generation. They realize the importance of studying and
(17). If you ask teenagers today about the future, most of them will tell you that they are (18). But teenagers will be teenagers. I once asked a teenager why he (19) his parents said and why he was behaving (20) His answer was, “It’s my job. I’m a teenager.”

Part B: Listening Comprehension

1. Statements

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short statements. These statements will be spoken ONLY ONCE, and you will not find them written on the paper; so you must listen carefully. When you hear a statement, read the four answer choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) and decide which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then mark the corresponding letter on your ANSWER SHEET with a thick line through the centre.

1. (A) Michael has been abroad for two years, so he speaks English very well.

(B) Michael has not studied English and he cannot speak it.

(D) Michael has studied English for two years and he speaks it very well.

2. (A) I’m expecting a business phone call at the moment.

(B) I’m meeting a client at the cafeteria at the moment.

(D) I cannot wait much longer to join my colleagues at the cafeteria.

3. (A) My letter contained important information.

(B) My letter may not be found in the insurance company.

(D) The insurance company would deal with my claim.

4. (A) You should wait to join those sports clubs.

　 (B) The heat wave will probably continue.

　 (D) I keep on jogging despite the hot weather.

5. (A) We should stand while watching television.

(B) We all need to exercise to stay healthy.

(D) We eat too much unhealthy food.

6. (A) For years books were cheaper during Christmas.

(B) Books were too cheap to buy as Christmas presents.

(D) People preferred to read books at Christmas.

7. (A) Bilingual language acquisition can start when a child is 5 years old.

(B) Generally speaking, language learning should begin as early as possible.

(D) A person may have language problems if not exposed to it at the age of 5.

8. (A) The maximum noise that our human ears can put up with is 140 decibels.

(B) It is advisable to listen to some rock music when an airplane is taking off.

(D) You should avoid taking a jet plane if you have chronic hearing problems.

9. (A) In London, people earn ?3,000 per month on average.

(B) In Britain, better looking often leads to higher income.

(D) If you have B average in college, you’re eligible for the scholarship.

10. (A) The promotions and higher salaries bring increased responsibilities.

(B) Emoloyees have more opportunities to be promoted in government agencies.

(D) There are more applications from employees once a higher position becomes vacant.

2. Talks and Conversations

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some short talks and conversations. After each one, you will hear some questions. The talks, conversations and questions will be spoken ONLY ONCE. Now listen carefully and choose the best answer from the four choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Then mark the corresponding letter on your ANSWER SHEET with a thick line through the centre.

Questions 11—14

11. (A) To pick up something in the garage.

(B) To impress a girl on a date.

(D) To spend the weekend in the countryside.

12. (A) He lent it to a friend of his.

(B) He left it in the country club.

(D) It was involved in a traffic accident.

13. (A) Rent a car.

(B) Open an account.

(D) Take the car to the insurance company.

14. (A) She has two cars available.

(B) She needs some money to buy gas.

(D) She is unwilling to lend her car.

Questions 15—18

15. (A) To sell some beer.

(B) To purchase a carpet.

(D) To plan a weekend visit.

16. (A) A couple of minutes.

(B) Half an hour.

(D) Over seventy minutes.

17. (A) A secretary.

(B) A bartender.

(D) A salesperson.

18. (A) She had bought more than necessary.

(B) She had known Julie all her life.

(D) She was familiar with the carpet industry.

Questions 19—22

19. (A) In a seafood store.

(B) In a local factory.

(D) At a dinner party.

20. (A) An investment contract.

(B) A seafood menu.

(D) The price-sensitive market.

21. (A)They should bid a higher price for it.

(B) They are not going to get the contract.

(D) It lasts for too long a period.

22. (A) Time.

(B) Price.

(D) Sensitivity.

Questions 23—26

23. (A) Describing types of crimes.

(B) Giving warnings against crimes.

(D) Showing the authorities’ determination to fight against crimes.

24. (A) It is likely to be stolen.

(B) It becomes a dog’s meat.

(D) It helps identify the owner.

25. (A) People who live in the town.

(B) Recently arrived immigrants.

(D) Foreign tourists.

26. (A) Taking a bus.

(B) Hiring a taxi.

(D) Going together with others.

Questions 27—30

27. (A) The news is not very interesting.

(B) The news is uplifting.

(D) The news is really depressing.

28. (A) Because he likes to know more about foreign cultures.

(B) Because he is going to work in other countries soon.

　 (D) Because his job is closely linked with this type of news.

29. (A) Arts and culture.

(B) International news.

　 (D) Human interest stories.

30. (A) The Internet is his main source of news.

　 (B) The news of disasters is of special interest to him.

　 (D) He gets most of his news from the newspapers.

Part C: Listening and Translation

1. Sentence Translation

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear 5 sentences in English. You will hear the sentences ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each sentence, translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space on your ANSWER SHEET.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

2. Passage Translation

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear 2 passages in English. You will hear the passages ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each passage, translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space on your ANSWER SHEET. You may take notes while you are listening.

(1)

(2)

SECTION 2: STUDY SKILLS(45 minutes)

Directions: In this section, you will read several passages. Each passage is followed by several questions based on its content. You are to choose ONE best answer, (A), (B), (C) or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage and mark the corresponding letter on your ANSWER SHEET with a thick line through the centre.

Questions 1—5

Transportation is the movement or conveying of persons and goods from one location to another. As human beings, from ancient times to the 21st century, sought to make their transport facilities more efficient, they have always endeavored to move people and property with the least expenditure of time, effort and cost.

Primitive human beings supplemented their own carrying of goods and possessions by starting to domesticate animals—training them to bear small loads and pull crude sleds. The invention of the wheel, probably in western Asia, was a great step forward in transport. As the wheel was perfected, crude carts and wagons began to appear in the Tigris-Euphrates valley about 3500 B.C., and later in Crete, Egypt, and China. Wheeled vehicles could not use the narrow paths and trails used by pack animals, and early roads were soon being built by the Assyrians and the Persians.

The greatest improvements in transportation have appeared in the last two centuries, a period during which the Industrial Revolution has vastly changed the economic life of the entire world. Crude railways—horse-drawn wagons with wooden wheels and rails—had been used in English and European mines during the 17th century. Although it first appeared in England, the railroad had its most dramatic growth in the United States. By 1840 more than 4,800 km of railroad were already operating in the eastern states, a figure 40 percent greater than the total railroad mileage of Europe. Since World War I, however, the U.S. railroads have been in a decline, due partly to the rapid development of private automobiles, trucks, buses, pipelines, and airlines.

The first new mode of transportation to challenge the railroad was the motor vehicle, which was made possible by the invention, in the 1860s and ’70s, of the internal combustion engine. The automobile found its greatest popularity in the United States, where the first “horseless carriages” appeared in the 1890s. Two hundred million motor vehicles had been produced in the nation within 70 years of their first appearance. The automobile thus became in many ways as important to the 20th century as the railroads had been to the 19th.

During the same period intercity buses took over a large portion of commercial passenger travel, and trucks began carrying a great deal of the nation’s freight.

Although the emphasis on fuel conservation waned in the 1980s, few doubt that the issue will emerge again when oil scarcities loom, as they did in the 1970s. Future possibilities include automobiles with far greater fuel efficiency and improved mass-transit systems. Both will occur not only in response to oil-supply disruption, but also as an answer to increasing demands for cleaner air. Improvements in mass transit offer the most promise for the future. Amtrak’s 1993 introduction of the Swedish high-speed “tilting train” should cut travel time between some East Coast cities by almost half, once tracks are entirely electrified.

1. A significant progress in transport in ancient times was attributed to ______.

(A) the making of carts and wagons

(B) the construction of roads

(D) the building of tracks

2. According to the passage, the railroad first appeared in ______.

(A) China

(B) Crete

(D) England

3. In the United States, two hundred million motor vehicles had been manufactured by

______.

(A) the 1890s

(B) the 1920s

(D) the 1960s

4. It can be concluded from the passage that ______.

(A) there had been oil crises in the 1970s

(B) the motor vehicles played a leading role in the decline of railroads

(D) environmental protection was a major concern in developing transport

5. The phrase “tilting train” (para. 6) suggeets that ______.

(A) It carries more freight than other vehicles

(B) It requires its tracks to be electrical

(D) Its cost is very low

Questions 6—10

In the first half of the 20th century, the fastest urban growth was in western cities. New York, London and other First World capitals were magnets for immigration and job opportunity. In 1950, New York, London, Tokyo and Paris boasted of having the world’s largest metropolitan populations. (Also in the top 10 were Moscow, Chicago, and the German city of Essen.) By then, New York had alreadly become the first “mega-city,” with more than 10 million people. It would not hold on to such exclusivity for long.

In the postwar period, many large American cities lost population as manufacturing fled overseas and returning soldiers taking advantage of the GI Bill fueled the process of suburbanization. Crime was also a factor. As an example, riot-torn Detroit lost 800,000 people between 1950 and 1996, and its population declined 33.9 percent between 1970 and 1996. Midwestern cities were particularly hard-hit. St. Louis, for instance, lost more than half its population in the same period, as did Pittsburgh. Cleveland precipitously declined, as did Buffalo, Cincinnati, Minneapolis and many other large cities, emerging as regional players rather than world leaders.

Meanwhile, while many American cities shrank, population around the world was growing dramatically. In the 20th century, world population increased from 1.65 billion to six billion. The highest rate of growth was in the late 1960s, when 80 million people were added every year.

According to the “World population Data Sheet,” global population will rise 46 percent between now and 2050 to about nine billion. While developed countries are losing population because of falling birth rates and carefully controlled immigration rates (only the United States reverses this trend, with 45 percent growth to 422 million predicted by 2050), population is exploding in the developing world.

India’s population will likely grow 52 percent to 1.6 billion by 2050, when it will surpass China as the world’s most populous country. The population in neighboring Pakistan will grow to 349 million, up 134 percent in 2050. Triple-digit growth rates are forecast for Iraq, Afghanistan and Nepal.

Africa could double in population to 1.9 billion by 2050. These growth rates hold despite the world’s highest rates of AIDS infection, and despite civil wars, famines and other factors. Despite strife in the Congo, it could triple to 181 million by 2050, while Nigeria doubles to 307 million.

6. What do we learn about the urban growth in the first paragraph?

(A) New York was listed exclusively as a mega-city for a long period of time.

(B) New York was one of the cities with a population of over 10 million in 1950.

(D) Most western cities accelerated the urban growth in population in the 1950s.

7. The decline in population of large American cities in the postwar period was due to all of the following EXCEPT ______.

(A) suburbanization

(B) violence in the cities

(D) controlled immigration

8. Which period of time in the 20th century witnessed the highest rate of growth in world population?

(A) The first half of the 20th century.

(B) The middle of the 20th century.

(D) The end of the 20th century.

9. By the year 2050, global population will ______.

(A) increase to about nine billion

(B) double the current population

(D) grow to the earth’s capacity

10. According to the passage, which country is likely to have the fastest growth rate of

population by 2050?

(A) India.

(B) The United States.

(D) The Congo.

Questions 11—15

Climate change threatens sustainable development and all eight Millennium Development Goals. The international community agreed at the beginning of the new millennium to eradicate extreme hunger and poverty by 2015. Yet, today, climate change is already responsible for forcing some fifty million additional people to go hungry and driving over ten million additional people into extreme poverty. Between one-fifth and one-third of Official Development Assistance is in climate-sensitive sectors and thereby highly exposed to climate risks.

To avert the worst outcomes of climate change, adaptation efforts need to be scaled up by a factor of more than 100 in developing countries. The only way to reduce the present human impact is through adaptation. But funding for adaptation in developing countries is not even one percent of what is needed. The multilateral funds that have been pledged for climate change adaptation funding currently amount to under half a billion US dollars.

Despite the lack of funding, some cases of successful adaptation do provide a glimmer of hope. Bangladesh is one such example. Cyclone Sidr, which struck Bangladesh in 2007, demonstrates how well adaptation and prevention efforts can pay off. Disaster preparation measures, such as early warning systems and storm-proof houses, minimized damage and destruction. Cyclone Sidr’s still considerable death toll of 3,400, and economic damages of $1.6 billion, nevertheless compare favourably to the similar scale cyclone Nargis, which hit Myanmar in 2008, resulting in close to 150,000 deaths and economic losses of around $4 billion.

Solutions do also exist for reducing greenhouse gas emissions, some even with multiple benefits. For instance, black carbon from soot, released by staple energy sources in poor communities, is likely causing as much as 18 percent of warming. The provision of affordable alternative cooking stoves to the poor can, therefore, have both positive health results, since smoke is eliminated, and an immediate impact on reducing emissions, since soot only remains in the atmosphere for a few weeks. Integrating strategies between adaptation, mitigation, development and disaster risk reduction can and must be mutually reinforcing. Climate change adaptation, mitigation, humanitarian assistance and development aid underpin each other, but are supported by different sets of institutions, knowledge centres, policy frameworks and funding mechanisms. These policies are essential to combat the human impact of climate change, but their links to one another have received inadequate attention.

11. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?

(A) Official Development Assistance is limited in climate-sensitive sectors.

(B) The number of people living in extreme hunger and poverty is on the rise.

schedule.

(D) The international community does not have the resources to cope with the new

challenge.

12. What is needed for developing countries to prevent the worst outcomes of climate

change?

(A) They should achieve a hundred-fold increase in their adaptation funding.

(B) They should draw multilateral funds from international communities.

(D) They should completely eliminate the present human impact.

13. Bangladesh suffered less damage and death toll because ______.

(A) it was hit by the cyclone not as destructive as the one in Myanmar

(B) it was not as densely-populated a country as Myanmar

(D) it set up sufficient funds for any possible disaster

14. The purpose of providing affordable alternative cooking stoves to the poor is ______.

(A) to save staple energy sources

(B) to emit no black smoke into the air

(D) to reduce greenhouse gas emissions

15. The word “underpin” (para. 4) is closest in meaning to ______.

(A) complement

(B) offset

(D) underscore

Questions 16—20

Is loyalty in the workplace dead?

Just recently, Lynda Gratton, a workplace expert, proclaimed that it was. In The Financial Times, she said that it had been “killed off through shortening contracts, outsourcing, automation and multiple careers.”

It’s sad if this sterling virtue is now out of place in the business world. But the situation may be more complicated. Depending on how you define it, loyalty may not be dead, but is just playing out differently.

Fifty years ago, an employee could stay at the same company for decades, said Tammy Erickson, an author and work-force consultant. Many were guaranteed longtime employment along with health care and a pension.

Now many companies cannot or will not hold up their end of the bargain, so why should the employees hold up theirs? Given the opportunity, they’ll take their skills and their portable retirement accounts elsewhere. These days, Ms. Gratton writes, trust is more important than loyalty: “Loyalty is about the future—trust is about the present.” Serial career monogamy is now the order of the day, she says.

Ms. Erickson says that the quid pro quo of modern employment is more likely to be: As long as I work for you, I promise to have the relevant skills and engage fully in my work; in return you’ll pay me fairly, but I don’t expect you to care for me when I’m 110.

For some baby boomers, this shift has been hard to accept. Many started their careers assuming that they would be rewarded based on long tenure.

A longtime employee who is also productive and motivated is of enormous value, said Cathy Benko, chief talent officer at Deloitte. On the other hand, she said, “You can be with a company a long time and not be highly engaged.”

Ms. Benko has seen her company shift its focus to employees’ level of engagement—or “the level at which people are motivated to deliver their best work” —rather than length of tenure.

Then there are the effects of the recent recession. Many people—if they haven’t been laid off—have stayed in jobs because they feel they have no choice. Employers may need to prepare for disruptions and turnover when the job market improves.

If the pendulum shifts, how will businesses persuade their best employees to stay? Money may do the trick, but not always. Especially with younger people, “you’re not going to buy extra loyalty with extra money,” Ms. Erickson said. Rather, employers need to make jobs more challenging and give workers more creative leeway, she said.

Loyalty may not be what it once was, but most companies will still be better off with at least a core of people who stay with them across decades. If loyalty is seen as a commitment to keep workers of all ages fulfilled, productive and involved, it can continue to be cultivated in the workplace—to the benefit of both employer and employee.

16. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Loyalty in the workplace is past history now.

(B) Loyalty has given way to trust in many companies.

(D) Loyalty suffers, but it is not dead in the workplace.

17. Traditionally, employees valued loyalty to the workplace as it was accompanied by

______.

(A) long tenure, healthcare and a pension

(B) high salary and a good position

(D) creative leeway and career development

18. According to the passage, many companies now ______.

(A) put their employees’ level of engagement above their length of tenure

(B) take good care of their longtime employees until their death

(D) do not pay extra money to keep productive employees

19. What do we learn from Cathy Benko about longtime employees?

(A) They have no choice but to stay in their jobs.

(B) They are not necessarily sufficiently engaged and devoted.

(D) They are of enormous value in their workplaces.

20. It can be concluded from the last paragraph that ______.

(A) loyalty can and should be inspired and developed in the workplace

(B) loyalty to the company can be bought in the case of young employees

(D) loyalty persists in spite of the shift of the business pendulum

Questions 21—25

One aspect of business life which many managers are unhappy with is the need to attend meetings. Research indicates that managers will spend between a third and a half of their working lives in meetings. Although most managers would agree that it is hard to think of an alternative to meetings, as a means of considering information and making collective decisions, their length and frequency can cause problems with the workload of even the best-organised executives.

Meetings work best if they take place only when necessary and not as a matter of routine. One example of this is the discussion of personal or career matters between members of staff and their line and personnel managers. Another is during the early stages of a project when the team managing it need to learn to understand and trust one another.

Once it has been decided that a meeting is necessary, decisions need to be taken about who will attend and about the location and length of the meeting. People should only be invited to attend if they are directly involved in the matters under discussion and the agenda should be distributed well in advance. An agenda is vital because it acts as a road map to keep discussion focused and within the time limit allocated. This is also the responsibility of the person chairing the meeting, who should encourage those who say little to speak and stop those who have a great deal to say from talking too much.

At the end of a well organised meeting, people will feel that the meeting has been a success and be pleased they were invited. They will know not only what decisions were made but also the reasons for these decisions. Unfortunately, at the end of a badly organised meeting those present will leave feeling that they have wasted their time and that nothing worthwhile has been achieved.

Much together has been given over the years to ways of keeping meeting short. One man who has no intention of spending half his working life in meeting is Roland Winterson, chief executive of a large manufacturing company. He believes that meetings should be short, sharp and infrequent. “I try to hold no more than two or three meetings a week, attended by a maximum of three people for no longer than half an hour,” he says. “They are clearly aimed at achieving a specific objective, such as making a decision or planning a strategy, and are based on careful preparation. I draw up the agenda for every meeting and circulate it in advance; those attending are expected to study it carefully and should be prepared to both ask and answer questions. Managers are best employed carrying out tasks directly connected with their jobs not attending endless meetings. In business, time is money and spending it in needless meetings that don’t achieve anything can be very costly. Executives should follow the example of lawyers and put a cost on each hour of their time and then decide whether attending a long meeting really is the best way to spend their time.”

21. What do most managers think about meetings?

(A) Meetings take up most of their working life.

(B) Meetings allow them to monitor decision-making.

(D) Meetings are the only way to achieve certain objectives.

22. According to the passage, an example of a valuable meeting is one which ______.

(A) allows colleagues to achieve a better working relationship

(B) requires managers to discuss staffing needs with personnel

(D) encourages staff to present ideas on improvements in management

23. According to the writer, the agenda is important because it ______.

(A) is seen by everybody before the meeting

(B) helps to give direction to the discussions

(D) shows who should speak at each stage of the meeting

24. The writer says that people leaving a well organized meeting will understand ______.

(A) the reason why they are to attend

(B) the importance of proposals under discussion

(D) how the decisions taken were relevant to them

25. What does Roland Winterson say about the meetings that he organizes?

(A) He aims to hold them on a regular basis.

(B) He ensures they have a definite purpose.

(D) He uses them to make decisions about strategy.

Questions 26—30

Extract 1

We, the undersigned, write with reference to the Hightown Local Plan, Consultative Draft, March 2005, published by the Hightown district Council.

While we understand the need for a Relief Road to ease the problems of increasing traffic in the area as a whole, we would like to express our concern at the proposed route. As shown in the Consultative Draft, the Relief Road will cross Fernwood Road, Golfcourse Way and High Lane, effectively cutting in half a prime residential area.

As residents of this particular area, we feel obliged to protest at the proposal on the following grounds:

There will be a substantial increase in traffic in the area, not only with the through-traffic, but also from traffic joining the Relief Road at the junction planned close to Fernwood Road.

At present, the area in question is a quiet residential area. With the Relief Road and the volume of traffic envisaged, there is no doubt that …

Extract 2

It is foreseen that the Relief Road will be a dual, two-lane carriageway and that there will be junctions at Fernwood Road and at the south end of High Lane. It is felt that such a road is required to allow for the growth of traffic envisaged over the next twenty years and that this route will be essential for through-traffic joining the Hightown Bypass. Thus the Relief Road and the Hightown Bypass together will provide substantial relief to the traffic problems experienced in recent years in the center of Fernwood following the construction of the new Container Port at Highport in 2000.

It is intended that construction of the Relief Road be begun in 2009. This, however, will be subject to approval by regional and central government. The Planning Committee feel that the road is vital to a proper development of the area as a whole and that therefore delays should be avoided. Thus arrangements will be made, through public meetings, for direct representations to be made to the Coucil regarding the proposals.

Extract 3

Both John and I hope that you are all settling down OK. You must write and tell us what the new house is like.

By the way, your move was probably a good thing for you. We’ve just heard about the new Local Plan for Hightown and have been busy drumming up support to fight a proposal to bring a Relief Road right through here. In fact, as far as we can see, it would have run right along the back of your garden in Golfcourse Way. I can just imagine what Mike would have had to say about the prospect of massive lorries trundling past his back garden night and day! Fortunately, as far as the plans are concerned, we’re not directly affected—I mean, the road won’t go past our house—but it will cut through two or three roads here, which will mean that we’d obviously get a lot more traffic through this …

26. Which is the most likely end to the final sentence in Extract 1? ‘… there is no doubt

that …’

(A) shopkeepers would flourish.

(B) the district will suffer.

(D) it will become attractive to new residents.

27. Extract 2 is probably from ______.

(A) an official planning document

(B) an application by a firm of contractors

(D) a letter to a casual acquaintance

28. The language of Extract 2 might best be described as ______.

(A) aggressive and hard-hitting

(B) impersonal and matter-of-fact

(D) friendly and persuasive

29. It is possible that the writer of Extract 3 ______.

(A) has just moved house

(B) also wrote Extract 2

(D) also wrote Extract 1

30. Which extract refers to a cause of present traffic problems?

(A) Extract 1.

(B) Extract 2.

(D) None of them.

SECTION 3: TRANSLATION TEST (1)(30 minutes)

Directions: Translate the following passage into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space on your ANSWER SHEET.

As manufacturers continue to roll out new smartphones, luring customers to ditch their old phones, data security experts warn that improperly disposed phones can be mined for personal data by hackers in the U.S. and abroad.

The Environmental Protection Agency reports more than 416,000 cellphones are disposed of every day and almost 40% of cellphone users fail to take any security measures, such as erasing their data before disposing of it.

According to the EPA, the average American is expected to buy a new cellphone every 24 months. After new cellphones are purchased, old phones are either recycled or trashed. More than 80% of e-waste is exported to Asia where workers break down electronic devices for metals, particularly gold and silver.

Without federal regulations on proper handling procedures, there is no way to assure consumers a best practice for e-cycling. Currently the EPA does not have any data on the amount of e-waste being exported—only data on how much is being recycled, which for cellphones is less than 10%.